israelites vs. gentiles

[jessicasherrow]

Hi, Brother Ben,
I am new here. I just read a post concerning different laws in the Old Testament. In the post someone wrote about certain laws pertaining only to the children of Israel. Why do they have different laws that only pertain to them? I thought there was a place in the Bible where Jesus says that there is no longer Jew nor Gentile. That basically we were all equal now is how I understood. Correct me if I am wrong. I have only in the last few months been really studying the Bible. Before I only knew what was read during church, which isn't alot. I have heard this many times about the Jews having different laws pertaining only to them, but I have never understood it. Just wondering why we shouldn't obey as well. Also, I was just thinking, how do you know for sure that the laws were only for the Jews? I know it says 'children of Israel', but weren't they pretty much the only ones who believed in God then? I don't know if I am even making any sense here. I just wanted to know if anyone can explain this to me. Thanks!
Jessica

[Brother Ben]

Good questions, Sister Jessica.

First of all, let's break our discussion into two categories: Old covenant, and New Covenant, (this is the same as Old Testament and New Testament.)

Under the O.C. God gave the law to all mankind, but it was his way of dealing with man prior to the coming of Christ. They had similar things, but not same. They had grace:

Gen 6:8 But Noah found grace in the eyes of the LORD.

Faith:

Hab 2:4 Behold, his soul [which] is lifted up is not upright in him: but the just shall live by his faith.

...and many other spiritual concepts, but they did not have a person who was the fulfillment of the law, namely, Jesus Christ in person.

It is my belief that the moral law is still active, but the ceremonial law, sacrifices, priests, tools for the tabernacle, etc. are no longer necessary because they are fulfilled in the person of Jesus Christ.

I also believe that the moral law and the dietary law are to now be interpreted in light of New Covenant principals. We know many of the things God said were not to be eaten are actually not good for you at all. However, some who go to the mission field have found that they have to eat somethings the dietary law forbade. But, notice this scripture:

1Ti 4:1 Now the Spirit expressly says that in latter times some will depart from the faith, giving heed to deceiving spirits and doctrines of demons,
1Ti 4:2 speaking lies in hypocrisy, having their own conscience seared with a hot iron,
1Ti 4:3 forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from foods which God created to be received with thanksgiving by those who believe and know the truth.
1Ti 4:4 For every creature of God is good, and nothing is to be refused if it is received with thanksgiving;
1Ti 4:5 for it is sanctified by the word of God and prayer.

So we see that God has supplemented his dietary law with the exception that in some cases food can be sanctified by the word of God and prayer.

We have missionary friends who eat rat, dog, etc., I won't belabor the point (yuk.) ;D

Under the O.C., one would go to the priest at the Temple for the cleansing of their sin:

Lev 4:26 And he shall burn all his fat upon the altar, as the fat of the sacrifice of peace offerings: and the priest shall make an atonement for him as concerning his sin, and it shall be forgiven him.

...but under the N.C. one goes to Jesus Christ:

Hbr 3:1 Wherefore, holy brethren, partakers of the heavenly calling, consider the Apostle and High Priest of our profession, Christ Jesus;

Hbr 4:14 Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast [our] profession.

So we see that we are to use the law, but we are to use it with the understanding that some of it is fulfilled in the N.C. and no longer has to be carried out as under the O.C.

1Ti 1:8 But we know that the law [is] good, if a man use it lawfully;

Did that answer your question? If not let me know where I can clarify.

Bro. Ben